Can anybody advance a reason that the CFMA even exists? Derivative investing has just as much money wanting a negative outcome as well as a positive outcome. Can other forces be used to influence a negative outcome? That begs the question has there been unlawful activities in trading. The CFMA allowed an expanded definition of futures. Dodd Frank recognizes the fallacy of the CFMA and reinstituing Glass/Steagall has been suggested. So why in the world is the CFMA tollerated? Why isn't Glass/Steagall reactivated?